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varuna
01 November 2006, 03:59 PM
Quote:
Originally Posted by Jalasayanan

Which agama says it? Vedic Authority is derived from Apourusheyam, all the other texts, which includes revelation of Shri Krishna,





Confused:

As a new (Western) scholar to 'Hindu' scriptures. In researching Śaivite texts, I have come across many academic texts that claim that Śaivism is based on the Agamas and as such has no 'Vedic authority' (to greater or lesser degrees). All appear to agree that the ancient Kāpālikas, a sub sect of Pāśupata Śaivism, through 'their abhorrent practices' rejected 'Vedic authority'.

My problem is I cannot find what marks a text as authoritive and what is not. Most academic texts state that systems stemming from the Agamas have no 'Vedic authority', yet Vaiṣṇavism has 108 Pańcarātra or Vaiṣṇava Agamas; Śaivism 28 Agamas; and Śaktism 77 Agamas. From this perspective I fail to see how Śaivism can be seperated by some academics.

To confound the issue even more, Vaiṣṇava, Śaivte and Śakta texts incorporate the philosophies of Vedānta and Sāṃkhya, philosophies that do have roots in the Vedas.

The question, and again asked in ignorance, is; through what mechanism can a text claim 'Vedic Authority'?

sarabhanga
01 November 2006, 06:51 PM
Namaste Varuna,

Welcome to the forum. :)

“Vedic authority” is ultimately derived from the Rgveda Samhita. And to claim such authority, a scripture or spiritual practice should have the Veda as its base ~ either directly from the Rgveda itself or implicitly by inspiration from the extensive canon of Vedas, Brahmanas, Aranyakas and Upanishads.

Buddhism rejected any scriptural authority of the Veda (but then established its own canon!).

The Kapalikas and Pashupatas did not reject vedic authority, and their practices (no matter how “abhorrent”) would have been justified (at least in their own estimation) by reference to the Veda.