Originally Posted by
vikz22
namasté
first i must thank the members of this forum for their response to Jodhaas question.
i must admit, when learning the story of Ramayan, this is something which troubled me greatly, along with parts of the mahabarata:
One of the reasons i took great pleasure in reading the Bhagavat Gita was in my mind i thought (being a mere mortal) Arjuns reservations in not fighting were admirable, and i was wondering how he could be convinced otherwise, and why his position seemed so worng?
thats when i read the Gita, and all became clear, such beautiful language used, truly is such an inspiration, and i finally understood the reason,
the reason for my little aside there is, i too, felt like jodhaa here, in terms of i was wondering how it would be possible for Ram to "appear to" abandon his wife, his one true love, in the manner that he did. Like the Bhagavat Gita itself, i was hoping the forum members here would illuminate me in that sense and i feel that Jodhaa meant the same as well and meant no offense to anyone in the manner of the post.
i must add that, the reasons i would ask the questions is NOT because i'm looking for faults in our religion, but i want to remove any mis interpretations from my mind that i may have.
i would like to thank Indraneela as well for the link presented, that has cleared up a lot of issues for me, but if the forum members would permit me, i would like to ask one question.
from the link, it shows, even though as much as Ram loved Sita, he could not go against his Dharma, his duty as a King and ruler of his people, and had to do what is in the best interest of his people, a decision which, in purely a mere mortal point of view, must have been the most difficult he ever made.
Now, can i ask, if the populas felt this way about Sita, (which i can't imagine myself, in that position, would ever think, of my loving queen, the wife of my King!), and for this reason, Ram had to send Sita away, (maybe i'm wrong here, please correct me if this is the case), so hypothetically, if for instance, the populas took a disliking to say lakhsman, would he also suffer the same fate? for the greater good? Because we know well of the devotion of Sita to Ram and vice versa, but here two innocents are made to suffer due to the belief of those without the knowledge of what happened (the people).
from a purely personal view, My anger is aimed at the people, because how could they think that of their queen, and the wife of a king they so adored! It was a situation that Ram should never have been put in.
i apologise if this question is offensive, its never my intention for that, any clarification would help immensely
i am at the behest of the more learned
thanks
Vikash
Bookmarks