Hi All:
Does mysticism relate to a pure and homogeneous experience? If so, are all the mystics of this world really talking about the same thing?
Here is an interesting extension to Sudarshan’s posting sometime back. The title of his thread was:
“Mystical Theology” (http://hindudharmaforums.com/showthread.php?t=555) where the author describes a particular mysticism based on Christian view. Sudarshan concludes that it is no different than Hindu Vedanta. Perhaps, we can ponder over this a little deeper.
Definition:
Sources that I used in reading:
Donald Bishop (ed): Indian Thought
S.Radhakrishnan – Hindu Philosophy
John Renard – Response to 101 Questions on Hinduism.
I have based arguments by taking excerpts from these authors.
Mysticism, as described, is the common ground where all religions, traditions come together very happily. Unlike “self-realization” that demands focused and well disciplined approach with a passionate longing, the mysticism is an unmediated encounter with God. It is derived from the direct knowledge or immediate insight. True mysticism encompasses all paths of “self-realization”. A common view purports that all religious differences seem to vanish in the fiery crucible of ultimate experience! It is said that in the mystic experience the soul finds itself in the presence of the highest.
In very broad terms there are many common features of such an experience among mystics from all faiths. They are heightened awareness, bewilderment, apparent loss of personal identity, ecstasy in God, encounter with ultimate reality and the conviction that all religious differences are meaningless. Regardless whether it is unitive mysticism (Shankara) or dualistic mysticism (Christian, VA), it is noted that the experiencer feels the same way.
Problem:
Having said that, I think, the view that all the world’s mystics are really talking about the same thing is as misleading as it is seductive! I have problem understanding mysticism in two fundamental ways.
1. There is a sense of ambiguity in the way mysticism is expressed. There is no evidence that any mystic achieved such a goal. The evidence of such absorption into God is impossible. Because, any created being who has become God cannot return to tell us of his experience; he who narrates his story has not become God!
2. If mystics live to tell you, what I wonder is the language and imagery they use are drawn from the tradition they belong to. That cannot simply be described as homogeneous and amenable to adherents of other traditions. Since all mystical experience can be organized by religious language and symbolism, when a Hindu or Christian talks about oneness with the absolute, he or she is talking about the oneness from an identifiable perspective that strictly comes from his/her (Hindu, Christian or Islamic) tradition.
Questions:
Given this, can a mystic claim to have experienced oneness and still be a mystic? Is there such a thing as “pure experience” that cares not a whit to what faith community he/she belongs to?
Do you agree with the assessment above? If not, jump in and let us know why or why not?
Blessings,
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