Re: BG 4.16 - Is the Supreme originally manifest or originally formless?
hariḥ oṁ
~~~~~~
namasté
Originally Posted by
jopmala
I think same question is asked by Arjuna to Sri Krishna in chapter 12 of Bhagavad Gita
“ of the two- those ever steadfast devotees( bhakta) who worship you and those who worship the unmenifested Brahman – who are the superior devotees ?”- verse 1
If I may, I wish to add just a bit more for the discerning reader. When one translates a sloka it is important to get the words aligned. With the offer above arjuna does not ask who is 'superior' but who is yoga-vittamāḥ .
So the key to this śloka resides in yoga-vittamāḥ and this does not mean superior. We know what yoga means , but what of vittamāḥ ?
Vitta = acquired , gained , obtained , possessed . It is rooted in 'vid' which means 'known , understood'. So the question is about who has gained , obtained, ~understood~ yoga, and not so much who is superior ( which infers an inferior state also).
But there is more... as this vittamāḥ also has mā as part of the word offer. This mā = knowledge, measure, authority, when we look to its 4th derivative.
In the 3rd derivative it can mean to measure (by any standard) , compare with . In this case we then can suggest the question is when comparing (mā) devotees which of these are most established (really comprehend fully) this yoga ?
Arjuna's question is quite insightful - it shows a keen intellect as he wishes to compare-and-contrast the differences.
Also too - one needs to be mindful that in BOTH cases of devotion that is discussed - that of brahman or of īśvara ( the manifest version of brahman) both are kṛṣṇa.
iti śivaṁ
यतस्त्वं शिवसमोऽसि
yatastvaṁ śivasamo'si
because you are identical with śiva
_
Bookmarks