Namaste,

In this following post ConfusedLearner said he is using English language.

http://www.hindudharmaforums.com/showthread.php?t=12762

I read somewhere that a word in Vedic Sanskrit(Vedas) corresponds to the object described by it.Proper result is obtained only when the mantras are chanted according to the rules and disastrous results if they are chanted in a wrong way and that mantras(worship)are always in Sanskrit and not in any other language.I did not understand this theory then.Can learned members kindly explain the relation between a Sanskrit word and the object it denotes and the efficacy of mantras?