I have been reading a little on the origin of the languages and it seems to me that the undeciphered script from the Indus Valley Civilization is apparently a 'Dravidian' script which means it was an early form of Tamil (?).
The archeological findings in the IVC show that the language used then was some Dravidian language and not Sanskrit. This is one of the major weapons the anti-Hindu/anti-Indian 'scholars' (i.e.Witzel) use to insist that Sanskrit was not indigenous to geographical 'India'; and therefore validating the Aryan Invasion Theory. Sanskrit was obviously a major part of Aryavarta and although that may have included regions currently outside geographical 'India', it was still an integral part of the Subcontinent.
The current explanations and 'scholarly' works are so inadequate and rather marred with blatant eurocentricity that getting a definitive answer seems out of the question. They (western 'scholars') link Sanskrit to some "indo-european" (how convenient) family of languages that apparently pre-dates Sanskrit. Some sources claim that the earliest written source of Sanskrit was ~1500 BCE.
This is the date given to the Rig Veda which seems absolutely ridiculous! Now I've read that Sage Agastya codified both Sanskrit and Tamil and since both share no direct relation to each other, it is quite interesting to probe into their origins. Also, the Sumerian script seems to be closely related to the (early) Tamil script so perhaps there was some connection (?) between the civilizations.
Anyway, do the scriptures talk about the origins of either language? If so, what do they say (infer)? The dating of anything to do with the History of Aryavarta is so aggravating since they never kept any records; or those records were destroyed by the marauding muslims and christians. Tamil Nadu is the only state where education in Hindi is not enforced. In fact, the Tamil Nadu govt., run by dalits, is so anti-Sanskrit that they wanted the priests in the temples to recite the shlokas in tamil! Of course, that was out of the question but it certainly is interesting that both Tamil & Sanskrit gave birth to all the other languages in India.
The question of ages comes into concern here and has always bugged me. According to the scriptures, the first Manvantara of Svayambhuva Manu is supposed to have existed almost 2 BILLION (solar) years ago! Is that even remotely true/possible? That human beings, quite advanced I might add, existed on earth almost 2 billion years ago? And they must have spoken Sanskrit because they had the Vedas etc. Any further speculation on this?
As some of my Tamil friends used to say, "Agastya codified Tamil in the morning and Sanskrit in the evening; thus Tamil is superior"! HAHAHAH.
Subham.
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